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Monday 09:00 - 17:00 Tuesday 09:00 - 17:00 Wednesday 09:00 - 17:00 Thursday 09:00 - 17:00 Friday 09:00 - 17:00 Sunday 09:00 - 17:00

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Lumen Path Educational Hub, jadibuti, Kathmandu (2026)

04/08/2025

Here are the answers to the 150 mock test questions

🧪 Answers (1–150)

1. A. Diazepam

2. B. Salbutamol

3. C. Hypertension

4. A. Amoxicillin

5. B. Ototoxicity

6. C. SR tablet

7. B. Delay release

8. C. Emulsion

9. A. Parabens

10. C. Stabilizing oil-water mix

11. C. 7.4

12. C. CH₃COOH

13. B. Mercuric chloride

14. B. Stabilize pH

15. B. mol/L

16. B. Crystal violet

17. D. Sporulation

18. A. Alcohol

19. B. Typhoid

20. B. Live host

21. C. Liver

22. B. Bone marrow

23. C. Blood glucose

24. B. 206

25. C. Aorta

26. B. 2035 BS

27. C. Department of Drug Administration

28. C. Narcotics

29. A. 1 year

30. B. Operate pharmacy

31. C. Water

32. C. Rickets

33. A. Naloxone

34. B. Antipyretic

35. C. Over-the-counter

36. B. Drug dispensing and counseling

37. C. 15–25°C

38. C. Last date of safe use

39. B. Adverse drug reaction

40. B. Doctor

41. C. Excess

42. C. Fast heart rate

43. B. Blood in urine

44. B. Stomach

45. C. Amoxicillin

46. B. External use only

47. B. Asthma

48. B. Mouth

49. C. Syrup

50. D. All of the above

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51. A. Levodopa

52. D. All of the above

53. A. Amlodipine

54. A. Erythromycin

55. D. All of the above

56. B. Emulsification

57. C. SR Tablet

58. B. Help tablet dissolve in the digestive tract

59. B. Magnesium stearate

60. B. Freeze-drying

61. C. Nitrogen

62. A. Sodium chloride

63. A. Morphine

64. A. Ethanol

65. A. Sodium hydroxide

66. A. Plasmodium falciparum

67. A. Staphylococcus aureus

68. B. Hepatitis B

69. D. Photosynthesis

70. B. Mantoux test

71. B. Parathyroid hormone

72. B. Blood clotting

73. B. Skin

74. A. Nephron

75. B. Cerebellum

76. B. Department of Drug Administration

77. D. Schedule C

78. C. Both pharmacists and pharmacies

79. C. Schedule H

80. B. Nepal Pharmacy Council

---

81. C. Vitamin K

82. B. Large intestine

83. A. C₆H₁₂O₆

84. A. Amphotericin B

85. B. 2–8°C

86. B. Patient counseling and monitoring

87. C. Oral

88. B. Quickly

89. B. Use of multiple drugs by a patient

90. B. Refrigerated (2–8°C)

91. B. Slow heart rate

92. A. Difficult breathing

93. A. Inflammation

94. B. Enlarged liver

95. B. Kidney diseases

96. A. Red

97. B. mL

98. B. Intravenous

99. B. Time during which the medicine is effective

100. D. All of the above

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101. B. Metformin

102. B. Loop diuretics

103. B. Tetracycline

104. B. N-acetylcysteine

105. D. All of the above

106. B. Filtration

107. A. A liquid in which solid particles are dispersed

108. D. Photosynthesis

109. B. Delayed release

110. D. All of the above

111. B. Sodium hydroxide

112. A. C₉H₈O₄

113. A. 0–7

114. B. Biuret reagent

115. A. Molecules with same formula but different structure

116. A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

117. B. Bacteria

118. B. Anopheles mosquito

119. B. Immune defense

120. B. Influenza

---

121. A. Transport oxygen

122. A. Brain and spinal cord

123. A. Retina

124. B. Insulin

125. D. O

126. B. Department of Drug Administration

127. A. Pharmacy operating license

128. B. Prescription drugs

129. A. Registration of pharmacists

130. B. They have fake or incorrect ingredients

131. B. Scurvy

132. B. Filter blood and produce urine

133. B. Sodium bicarbonate

134. A. Fluconazole

135. B. 36.5–37.5°C

136. A. Use of multiple drugs by a patient

137. B. Intramuscular

138. A. Amount of drug absorbed into systemic circulation

139. A. Digoxin

140. B. Nausea and vomiting

---

141. A. Blue discoloration of skin

142. A. Swelling caused by fluid accumulation

143. B. Increase in white blood cells

144. B. Surgical removal

145. B. Decreased bone density

146. C. External use only

147. A. mg

148. B. Morphine

149. A. Date after which the drug should not be used

150. D. All of the above

30/07/2025

Here are 150 mock test of Nepal diploma in pharmacy license exam .
1. Drug of choice for status epilepticus:
A. Diazepam
B. Paracetamol
C. Aspirin
D. Furosemide
2. Drug used to treat bronchial asthma:
A. Digoxin
B. Salbutamol
C. Atenolol
D. Omeprazole
3. ACE inhibitors are used in the treatment of:
A. Diabetes
B. Tuberculosis
C. Hypertension
D. Parkinsonism
4. Which is a broad-spectrum antibiotic?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Penicillin G
C. Vancomycin
D. Rifampicin
5. Side effect of aminoglycosides:
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Sedation
D. Constipation
6. Dosage form designed for controlled release:
A. Suppository
B. Ointment
C. SR tablet
D. Syrup
7. Purpose of coating tablets:
A. Decrease taste
B. Delay release
C. Reduce cost
D. None
8. Which is a liquid dosage form?
A. Capsule
B. Tablet
C. Emulsion
D. Ointment
9. Which one is a preservative?
A. Parabens
B. Magnesium stearate
C. Glucose
D. Kaolin
10. What is emulsifying agent used for?
A. Sweetening
B. Coloring
C. Stabilizing oil-water mix
D. Increasing bulk
11. Normal pH of blood:
A. 7.0
B. 6.8
C. 7.4
D. 8.2
12. Which is a weak acid?
A. HCl
B. H₂SO₄
C. CH₃COOH
D. HNO₃
13. Which is used in limit test for arsenic?
A. Lead acetate
B. Mercuric chloride
C. Silver nitrate
D. Potassium iodide
14. Buffer solution is used to:
A. Increase volume
B. Stabilize pH
C. Lower boiling point
D. Kill bacteria
15. Unit of concentration in molarity is:
A. g/mL
B. mol/L
C. mg/kg
D. mol/g
16. The stain used in Gram staining is:
A. Methylene blue
B. Crystal violet
C. Carbol fuchsin
D. Safranin
17. Fungi reproduce by:
A. Binary fission
B. Budding
C. Mitosis
D. Sporulation
18. Common disinfectant in hospitals:
A. Alcohol
B. Water
C. Vinegar
D. Talc
19. Disease caused by Salmonella typhi:
A. Cholera
B. Typhoid
C. Tuberculosis
D. Dysentery
20. Virus is cultivated in:
A. Culture media
B. Live host
C. Blood
D. Agar plate
21. Which organ secretes bile?
A. Pancreas
B. Gall bladder
C. Liver
D. Stomach
22. Red blood cells are produced in:
A. Liver
B. Bone marrow
C. Kidney
D. Lungs
23. Insulin regulates:
A. Blood pressure
B. Oxygen level
C. Blood glucose
D. Sodium level
24. How many bones in adult human body?
A. 200
B. 206
C. 198
D. 220
25. Largest artery in the body:
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Femoral artery
C. Aorta
D. Coronary artery
26. DDA was established in Nepal in:
A. 2020 BS
B. 2035 BS
C. 2045 BS
D. 2050 BS
27. Who regulates community pharmacy in Nepal?
A. Ministry of Education
B. Nepal Pharmacy Council
C. Department of Drug Administration
D. Nepal Medical Council
28. Schedule X drugs are:
A. OTC
B. Prescription
C. Narcotics
D. Ayurvedic
29. Validity of pharmacy license:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
30. Registered pharmacist can:
A. Prescribe medicine
B. Operate pharmacy
C. Do surgery
D. Conduct diagnosis
31. Universal solvent:
A. Alcohol
B. Ether
C. Water
D. Acetone
32. Vitamin D deficiency causes:
A. Scurvy
B. Night blindness
C. Rickets
D. Pellagra
33. Antidote for morphine poisoning:
A. Naloxone
B. Atropine
C. Adrenaline
D. Diazepam
34. Drug that lowers fever is called:
A. Analgesic
B. Antipyretic
C. Antibiotic
D. Antitussive
35. OTC means:
A. Over time care
B. On the counter
C. Over-the-counter
D. Only to check
36. Main responsibility of hospital pharmacist:
A. Surgery
B. Drug dispensing and counseling
C. Nursing
D. Cleaning
37. Medicine storage temperature (room):
A. 10–15°C
B. 2–8°C
C. 15–25°C
D. 25–35°C
38. Medicine expiry date means:
A. Start of use
B. Manufacturing date
C. Last date of safe use
D. Labeling date
39. ADR means:
A. Advanced drug result
B. Adverse drug reaction
C. Anti-drug registration
D. Authorized drug refill
40. Who writes prescriptions?
A. Pharmacist
B. Doctor
C. Nurse
D. Lab technician
41. Prefix “hyper-” means:
A. Below
B. Equal
C. Excess
D. Opposite
42. Tachycardia means:
A. Slow heart rate
B. Irregular heartbeat
C. Fast heart rate
D. Absent heartbeat
43. Hematuria refers to:
A. Blood in stool
B. Blood in urine
C. Excess urination
D. Painful urination
44. Gastritis is inflammation of:
A. Intestine
B. Stomach
C. Liver
D. Pancreas
45. Antibiotic “-cillin” group includes:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Tetracycline
C. Amoxicillin
D. Erythromycin
46. Red label means:
A. Safe for all
B. External use only
C. Narcotics
D. Refrigerated
47. Inhalers are used for:
A. Gastritis
B. Asthma
C. Epilepsy
D. Cold
48. Oral dosage is given through:
A. IM
B. Mouth
C. Skin
D. Re**um
49. Which is measured in mL?
A. Tablet
B. Injection
C. Syrup
D. Capsule
50. Proper label should include:
A. Patient name
B. Dose
C. Frequency
D. All of the above

51. Which drug is used for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease?
A. Levodopa
B. Diazepam
C. Atenolol
D. Metformin
52. The drug of choice for tuberculosis is:
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Streptomycin
D. All of the above
53. Which drug is a calcium channel blocker?
A. Amlodipine
B. Atenolol
C. Digoxin
D. Furosemide
54. Which antibiotic belongs to the macrolide group?
A. Erythromycin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Metronidazole
55. Side effect of long-term corticosteroid use is:
A. Hypertension
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Osteoporosis
D. All of the above
56. The process of mixing two immiscible liquids with the help of an emulsifying agent is called:
A. Suspension
B. Emulsification
C. Solution
D. Adsorption
57. Which is a sustained-release dosage form?
A. Tablet
B. Capsule
C. SR Tablet
D. Syrup
58. What is the purpose of tablet disintegrants?
A. Bind tablet ingredients
B. Help tablet dissolve in the digestive tract
C. Give taste to tablet
D. Increase tablet hardness
59. Which excipient is used as a lubricant in tablet manufacturing?
A. Talc
B. Magnesium stearate
C. Lactose
D. Gelatin
60. Lyophilization is a method of:
A. Sterilization
B. Freeze-drying
C. Granulation
D. Filtration
61. Which element is present in all amino acids?
A. Sulfur
B. Carbon
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen
62. What is the IUPAC name for common salt?
A. Sodium chloride
B. Potassium chloride
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Calcium chloride
63. Which of the following is an alkaloid?
A. Morphine
B. Aspirin
C. Penicillin
D. Paracetamol
64. Which chemical compound is used as an antiseptic?
A. Ethanol
B. Methanol
C. Ethylene glycol
D. Benzene
65. Which of the following is a strong base?
A. Sodium hydroxide
B. Acetic acid
C. Ammonium chloride
D. Carbonic acid
66. The causative agent of malaria is:
A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Trypanosoma
D. Giardia lamblia
67. Which bacteria is Gram-positive?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Salmonella typhi
68. The viral disease prevented by vaccination is:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Hepatitis B
C. Cholera
D. Leprosy
69. Which of the following is not a mode of disease transmission?
A. Airborne
B. Vector-borne
C. Waterborne
D. Photosynthesis
70. Which test is used for tuberculosis diagnosis?
A. Widal test
B. Mantoux test
C. ELISA
D. Rapid plasma reagin
71. Which hormone regulates calcium levels in blood?
A. Insulin
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Adrenaline
D. Thyroxine
72. The primary function of platelets is:
A. Oxygen transport
B. Blood clotting
C. Immune response
D. Hormone secretion
73. The largest organ of the human body is:
A. Liver
B. Skin
C. Lung
D. Kidney
74. The functional unit of the kidney is called:
A. Nephron
B. Glomerulus
C. Ureter
D. Bowman’s capsule
75. Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Medulla
D. Hypothalamus
76. Which body approves new drugs in Nepal?
A. Nepal Pharmacy Council
B. Department of Drug Administration
C. Ministry of Health and Population
D. Nepal Medical Council
77. Which schedule classifies over-the-counter (OTC) drugs?
A. Schedule A
B. Schedule B
C. Schedule H
D. Schedule C
78. The Nepal Pharmacy Council issues license for:
A. Pharmacists only
B. Pharmacy premises only
C. Both pharmacists and pharmacies
D. None of the above
79. Prescription drugs are regulated under which schedule?
A. Schedule B
B. Schedule C
C. Schedule H
D. Schedule X
80. Who is responsible for the ethical conduct of pharmacists in Nepal?
A. Nepal Medical Council
B. Nepal Pharmacy Council
C. Department of Drug Administration
D. Ministry of Education
81. The vitamin necessary for blood clotting is:
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin C
82. The process of water absorption in the human body occurs mainly in the:
A. Stomach
B. Large intestine
C. Small intestine
D. Liver
83. The chemical formula for glucose is:
A. C₆H₁₂O₆
B. C₆H₆O₆
C. C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁
D. C₆H₁₂O₅
84. An example of an antifungal drug is:
A. Amphotericin B
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Metronidazole
D. Rifampicin
85. The storage temperature for vaccines is generally:
A. Room temperature
B. 2–8°C
C. Below freezing
D. 20–25°C
86. The main role of clinical pharmacy is:
A. Drug development
B. Patient counseling and monitoring
C. Drug manufacturing
D. Hospital administration
87. Which of the following is not a parenteral route?
A. Intravenous
B. Intramuscular
C. Oral
D. Subcutaneous
88. A drug given via the sublingual route is absorbed:
A. Slowly
B. Quickly
C. Not absorbed
D. After digestion
89. The term ‘polypharmacy’ refers to:
A. Use of multiple pharmacies
B. Use of multiple drugs by a patient
C. Use of multiple dosages
D. Use of polycarbonate bottles
90. What is the recommended storage condition for insulin?
A. Room temperature
B. Refrigerated (2–8°C)
C. Frozen
D. Dry place
91. “Bradycardia” means:
A. Fast heart rate
B. Slow heart rate
C. Irregular heart rate
D. No heartbeat
92. “Dyspnea” refers to:
A. Difficult breathing
B. Painful urination
C. Low blood pressure
D. High blood sugar
93. The suffix “-itis” means:
A. Inflammation
B. Tumor
C. Infection
D. Treatment
94. “Hepatomegaly” means:
A. Liver inflammation
B. Enlarged liver
C. Liver failure
D. Liver tumor
95. “Nephrology” is the study of:
A. Heart diseases
B. Kidney diseases
C. Lung diseases
D. Brain diseases
96. The label color for external use only drugs is:
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Yellow
97. The common unit for measuring liquid medicines is:
A. mg
B. mL
C. g
D. IU
98. Which route of administration bypasses first-pass metabolism?
A. Oral
B. Intravenous
C. Re**al
D. Sublingual
99. The shelf life of a medicine is:
A. Time before manufacturing
B. Time during which the medicine is effective
C. Time to take medicine after opening
D. Time it takes to produce medicine
100. The information that must be present on a medicine label is:
A. Drug name and strength
B. Dosage instructions
C. Expiry date
D. All of the above
101. Which drug is commonly used to treat diabetes mellitus type 2?
A. Insulin
B. Metformin
C. Glucagon
D. Diazepam
102. Which class of drugs is primarily used as diuretics?
A. Beta blockers
B. Loop diuretics
C. ACE inhibitors
D. Calcium channel blockers
103. Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Erythromycin
104. What is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?
A. Naloxone
B. N-acetylcysteine
C. Atropine
D. Flumazenil
105. Which drug is used as an anticoagulant?
A. Warfarin
B. Heparin
C. Aspirin
D. All of the above
106. Which method is used to sterilize heat-sensitive liquids?
A. Autoclaving
B. Filtration
C. Dry heat sterilization
D. Boiling
107. The term “suspension” refers to:
A. A liquid in which solid particles are dispersed
B. A solution
C. A gas mixture
D. A tablet form
108. Which is NOT a route of drug administration?
A. Oral
B. Intravenous
C. Transdermal
D. Photosynthesis
109. What type of release does an enteric-coated tablet provide?
A. Immediate release
B. Delayed release
C. Sustained release
D. None
110. The shelf life of a drug depends on:
A. Packaging
B. Storage conditions
C. Drug stability
D. All of the above
111. Which of the following is an example of a base?
A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Acetic acid
D. Carbonic acid
112. What is the molecular formula of aspirin?
A. C₉H₈O₄
B. C₈H₈O₄
C. C₉H₁₀O₄
D. C₈H₁₀O₄
113. Which pH range defines acidic solutions?
A. 0–7
B. 7–14
C. 7
D. Neutral
114. Which reagent is used to detect proteins?
A. Benedict’s reagent
B. Biuret reagent
C. Iodine solution
D. Methyl orange
115. The term “isomer” means:
A. Molecules with same formula but different structure
B. Molecules with different formula
C. Molecules that are ionic
D. Molecules that dissolve in water
116. Which microorganism causes tuberculosis?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Escherichia coli
117. Antibiotics are effective against:
A. Viruses
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. All microorganisms
118. The common vector for malaria is:
A. Tsetse fly
B. Anopheles mosquito
C. Housefly
D. Tick
119. The function of white blood cells is:
A. Oxygen transport
B. Immune defense
C. Blood clotting
D. Hormone transport
120. Which of the following diseases is viral?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Influenza
C. Ringworm
D. Typhoid
121. The main function of hemoglobin is:
A. Transport oxygen
B. Fight infection
C. Clot blood
D. Store energy
122. The nervous system consists of:
A. Brain and spinal cord
B. Heart and lungs
C. Kidneys and liver
D. Bones and muscles
123. The part of the eye responsible for vision is:
A. Retina
B. Cornea
C. Iris
D. Lens
124. The hormone secreted by the pancreas that lowers blood glucose is:
A. Glucagon
B. Insulin
C. Adrenaline
D. Thyroxine
125. Which blood group is known as the universal donor?
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O
126. The drug regulatory authority of Nepal is:
A. Nepal Medical Council
B. Department of Drug Administration
C. Ministry of Education
D. Nepal Pharmacy Council
127. Which license is mandatory to operate a pharmacy in Nepal?
A. Pharmacy operating license
B. Medical license
C. Nursing license
D. Laboratory license
128. Schedule H drugs are:
A. OTC drugs
B. Prescription drugs
C. Narcotics
D. Herbal medicines
129. The Pharmacy Council of Nepal is responsible for:
A. Registration of pharmacists
B. Regulating drug prices
C. Hospital administration
D. Medical education
130. Which of the following is true about counterfeit drugs?
A. They are genuine drugs
B. They have fake or incorrect ingredients
C. They are approved by DDA
D. They are expensive
131. Vitamin C deficiency causes:
A. Beriberi
B. Scurvy
C. Rickets
D. Night blindness
132. The function of kidneys is to:
A. Produce hormones
B. Filter blood and produce urine
C. Digest food
D. Pump blood
133. The common chemical name for baking soda is:
A. Sodium chloride
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Potassium chloride
D. Calcium carbonate
134. An example of an antifungal drug is:
A. Fluconazole
B. Amoxicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Metformin
135. The normal human body temperature is approximately:
A. 35°C
B. 36.5–37.5°C
C. 38°C
D. 40
136. The term “polypharmacy” means:
A. Use of multiple drugs by a patient
B. Pharmacy with many branches
C. Prescribing one drug only
D. Using herbal medicines
137. Which of the following is a parenteral route of administration?
A. Oral
B. Intramuscular
C. Sublingual
D. Topical
138. The term “bioavailability” means:
A. Amount of drug absorbed into systemic circulation
B. Drug dosage form
C. Drug metabolism
D. Drug excretion
139. Which of the following drugs requires therapeutic drug monitoring?
A. Digoxin
B. Paracetamol
C. Aspirin
D. Ibuprofen
140. The most common adverse drug reaction is:
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Hepatotoxicity
D. Nephrotoxicity
141. “Cyanosis” refers to:
A. Blue discoloration of skin
B. Redness of skin
C. Yellowing of eyes
D. Swelling
142. “Edema” means:
A. Swelling caused by fluid accumulation
B. Pain in muscles
C. Loss of sensation
D. Fever
143. “Leukocytosis” means:
A. Decrease in white blood cells
B. Increase in white blood cells
C. Increase in red blood cells
D. Decrease in red blood cells
144. The suffix “-ectomy” means:
A. Inflammation
B. Surgical removal
C. Disease
D. Condition
145. “Osteoporosis” refers to:
A. Increased bone density
B. Decreased bone density
C. Bone infection
D. Bone cancer
146. The red label on medicines indicates:
A. Prescription only
B. Over the counter
C. External use only
D. Refrigerated storage
147. The most common unit to measure tablet weight is:
A. mg
B. mL
C. IU
D. g
148. Which of the following is an example of a controlled drug?
A. Paracetamol
B. Morphine
C. Amoxicillin
D. Vitamin C
149. The term “expiry date” on a drug label means:
A. Date after which the drug should not be used
B. Date drug was manufactured
C. Date drug was packaged
D. Date drug was prescribed
150. The label on dispensed medicine should always include:
A. Patient name
B. Dosage instructions
C. Drug name
D. All of the above

14/07/2025

1. A patient complains of burning during urination. What is the most likely cause?
A) Renal failure
B) Urinary tract infection
C) Diabetes
D) Dehydration

2. The nurse notes a reddened area on the patient’s sacrum. What should be done first?
A) Apply ice
B) Massage the area
C) Reposition the patient
D) Apply a heating pad

3. What is the primary concern when a patient is receiving oxygen therapy?
A) Infection
B) Fire hazard
C) Sedation
D) Skin rash

4. Which of the following is considered the most accurate method of measuring body temperature?
A) Oral
B) Axillary
C) Tympanic
D) Re**al

5. A patient has a nasogastric tube for feeding. What should the nurse check before each feeding?
A) Weight
B) Blood pressure
C) Tube placement
D) Respiratory rate

6. What is the best method to prevent the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?
A) Using PPE
B) Isolating patients
C) Frequent hand washing
D) Taking antibiotics

7. When transferring a patient from bed to wheelchair, the nurse should:
A) Lock the bed wheels only
B) Pull the patient by the arms
C) Lock both wheelchair and bed wheels
D) Place the wheelchair far from the bed

8. A patient with diabetes becomes shaky and confused. What should the nurse do first?
A) Administer insulin
B) Give juice or glucose
C) Call the physician
D) Start CPR

9. How should a nurse dispose of a used needle?
A) In the trash bin
B) Recap and dispose
C) In a sharps container
D) Wash and reuse

10. The nurse is assisting a patient with a partial bed bath. Which area should be washed first?
A) Feet
B) Face
C) Arms
D) Back

11. When providing oral care to an unconscious patient, the nurse should:
A) Lay the patient flat
B) Use a toothbrush only
C) Position the patient on their side
D) Avoid using any fluid

12. A nurse hears wheezing on auscultation. What does this sound most likely indicate?
A) Normal lungs
B) Upper airway obstruction
C) Fluid in lungs
D) Narrowed airways

13. The most common site for checking the pulse in an adult is:
A) Brachial
B) Carotid
C) Radial
D) Femoral

14. A pressure ulcer that extends into the muscle is classified as:
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV

15. Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin D

16. A nurse is preparing to give a bed bath. What should she do first?
A) Warm the water
B) Close the door/curtain
C) Remove the gown
D) Wash the feet

17. The main purpose of a restraint is to:
A) Punish the patient
B) Reduce noise in the ward
C) Ensure patient safety
D) Replace staff supervision

18. Which site is most commonly used for checking temperature in infants?
A) Oral
B) Axillary
C) Re**al
D) Tympanic

19. What does cyanosis indicate?
A) Fever
B) Poor oxygenation
C) Good circulation
D) Dehydration

20. The nurse notes that a patient’s urine output is 200 ml in 12 hours. What should she suspect?
A) Overhydration
B) Normal findings
C) Oliguria
D) Polyuria

14/07/2025

🧪 DHA Nursing Mock Test – Set 2 (Questions 21–70)

21. What is the priority action when a patient is found unresponsive?
A. Call the doctor
B. Check for a pulse
C. Start chest compressions
D. Administer oxygen

22. What is the universal sign of choking?
A. Clutching the chest
B. Gasping
C. Clutching the throat
D. Crying

23. What is the antidote for paracetamol overdose?
A. Atropine
B. Acetylcysteine
C. Naloxone
D. Flumazenil

24. A patient with renal failure is most at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypernatremia

25. Which infection control precaution is used for TB?
A. Contact
B. Droplet
C. Airborne
D. Standard

26. A client receiving digoxin should be monitored for:
A. Tachycardia
B. Bradycardia
C. Hypertension
D. Hyperglycemia

27. What is the best time to collect sputum sample?
A. Afternoon
B. Night
C. Morning
D. Before meals

28. The correct angle for a subcutaneous injection is:
A. 90°
B. 15°
C. 30°
D. 45°

29. What should the nurse do before administering blood?
A. Check patient weight
B. Take blood pressure only
C. Verify identity with two identifiers
D. Ask for consent only

30. What is the first sign of phlebitis?
A. Numbness
B. Redness
C. Fever
D. Swelling

31. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Influenza
B. Hepatitis B
C. MMR
D. Tetanus

32. Which lab value indicates infection?
A. Low hemoglobin
B. High WBC
C. High platelet
D. Low RBC

33. What is the normal fasting blood sugar level?
A. 50–90 mg/dL
B. 70–100 mg/dL
C. 100–130 mg/dL
D. 130–160 mg/dL

34. What is the antidote for benzodiazepines?
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Atropine
D. Protamine

35. Which symptom is associated with left-sided heart failure?
A. Edema
B. Ascites
C. Pulmonary congestion
D. Hepatomegaly

36. Which organ is primarily affected by hepatitis?
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lung
D. Heart

37. A patient with fluid overload will show:
A. Dehydrated mucosa
B. Distended neck veins
C. Dry skin
D. Low BP

38. Which electrolyte imbalance causes Trousseau’s sign?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia

39. Which position is used after spinal anesthesia?
A. Fowler’s
B. Supine
C. Prone
D. Trendelenburg

40. What is the best indicator of fluid balance?
A. Skin turgor
B. Weight
C. BP
D. Heart rate

41. Which food should be avoided while taking MAOIs?
A. Banana
B. Yogurt
C. Cheese
D. Apple

42. Best method to reduce healthcare-associated infections?
A. Wearing gloves
B. Isolating patients
C. Handwashing
D. Wearing masks

43. Which side effect is common in chemotherapy?
A. Weight gain
B. Alopecia
C. Hypertension
D. Constipation

44. Which sign is most associated with anemia?
A. Jaundice
B. Pallor
C. Cyanosis
D. Itching

45. What is a common symptom of meningitis?
A. Joint pain
B. Neck stiffness
C. Edema
D. Chest pain

46. Which type of insulin is rapid-acting?
A. NPH
B. Regular
C. Lispro
D. Lente

47. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses what?
A. Heart rhythm
B. Consciousness
C. Respiratory effort
D. Pain

48. In CPR, the compression to breath ratio for adults is:
A. 15:2
B. 20:1
C. 30:2
D. 10:1

49. Which is the safest site for IM injection in adults?
A. Dorsogluteal
B. Deltoid
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Ventrogluteal

50. The normal platelet count is:
A. 150,000–450,000 /mm³
B. 4,000–10,000 /mm³
C. 3.5–5.5 mmol/L
D. 10,000–15,000 /mm³

51. After administering morphine, what is the nurse’s priority?
A. Monitor for itching
B. Monitor respiratory rate
C. Monitor heart rate
D. Monitor urine output

52. What is an early sign of hypoxia?
A. Cyanosis
B. Confusion
C. Bradycardia
D. Low BP

53. Which symptom is associated with hypokalemia?
A. Muscle cramps
B. Diarrhea
C. Confusion
D. Fever

54. Best action for fire safety in a hospital?
A. Call security
B. Rescue, alarm, contain, extinguish
C. Close all windows
D. Evacuate immediately

55. What does droplet precaution require?
A. Negative pressure room
B. N95 mask
C. Surgical mask
D. Gloves only

56. What is the common side effect of iron supplements?
A. Diarrhea
B. Black stools
C. Rash
D. Vomiting

57. What is the first action for a needle stick injury?
A. Report incident
B. Wash with soap and water
C. Get tested
D. Apply antiseptic

58. Which condition requires neutropenic precautions?
A. Leukemia
B. Hypertension
C. Diabetes
D. COPD

59. Which site is preferred for TB injection?
A. Vastus lateralis
B. Deltoid
C. Forearm
D. Gluteus

60. Which route is used for insulin?
A. IM
B. IV
C. SC
D. Oral

61. What is a sign of dehydration?
A. Edema
B. Polyuria
C. Poor skin turgor
D. Hypertension

62. The nurse hears a high-pitched wheeze. What should she suspect?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Bronchospasm
C. Pneumonia
D. Pleural effusion

63. How long should handwashing take?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 60 seconds

64. Which food is high in potassium?
A. Rice
B. Apple
C. Banana
D. Bread

65. What is the goal of hospice care?
A. Cure illness
B. Prolong life
C. Provide comfort
D. Reduce BP

66. What is the safest way to identify a patient?
A. Ask their name
B. Look at chart
C. Use two identifiers
D. Ask a relative

67. What is the minimum angle for IM injection?
A. 15°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 90°

68. A patient complains of chest pain. What is the priority?
A. Administer painkiller
B. Perform ECG
C. Check vital signs
D. Call the doctor

69. The best site to assess jaundice in dark-skinned patients:
A. Hands
B. Eyes
C. Feet
D. Chest

70. What is the proper PPE for delivering a baby?
A. Gloves only
B. Gloves, mask
C. Full PPE
D. Gown only

14/07/2025

🧪 DHA Nursing Mock Test – Set 1 (Questions 1–20)

1. What is the normal range of serum potassium in the human body?
A. 2.5–3.5 mmol/L
B. 3.5–5.0 mmol/L
C. 5.5–6.5 mmol/L
D. 1.5–2.0 mmol/L

2. Which of the following is the antidote for heparin overdose?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin K
C. Atropine
D. Naloxone

3. What is the best position for a patient experiencing shock?
A. Fowler’s position
B. Prone position
C. Supine with legs elevated
D. Left lateral

4. What is the most common complication of immobility?
A. Insomnia
B. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
C. Tachycardia
D. UTI

5. A nurse accidentally administers the wrong medication. What is the first step she should take?
A. Document the error
B. Inform the physician
C. Assess the patient
D. Report to the manager

6. What is the purpose of incentive spirometry?
A. To prevent atelectasis
B. To measure blood pressure
C. To improve appetite
D. To administer oxygen

7. A patient with a urinary catheter reports bladder fullness. What should the nurse do first?
A. Increase IV fluids
B. Irrigate the catheter
C. Check for catheter blockage
D. Remove the catheter

8. Which vaccine is given at birth?
A. DTP
B. Hepatitis B
C. MMR
D. IPV

9. What is the normal respiratory rate for adults?
A. 10–20 breaths/min
B. 12–20 breaths/min
C. 20–30 breaths/min
D. 8–12 breaths/min

10. What is the common side effect of furosemide?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypernatremia

11. Which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia?
A. Flushed skin
B. Slow heart rate
C. Cold and clammy skin
D. Increased urination

12. What is the proper site for intramuscular injection in infants?
A. Deltoid
B. Dorsogluteal
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Ventrogluteal

13. When should hand hygiene be performed?
A. Before eating
B. After removing gloves
C. Before and after patient contact
D. All of the above

14. What is the normal range of hemoglobin in adult females?
A. 8–10 g/dL
B. 10–12 g/dL
C. 12–16 g/dL
D. 14–18 g/dL

15. What should the nurse monitor when a patient is on warfarin therapy?
A. INR
B. Platelet count
C. Potassium
D. Sodium

16. Which of the following is a priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with asthma?
A. Risk for falls
B. Ineffective airway clearance
C. Impaired skin integrity
D. Fluid volume deficit

17. Which of the following PPE is required for contact precautions?
A. Gloves only
B. Gloves and gown
C. Mask only
D. Full PPE

18. The abbreviation “PRN” means:
A. Every night
B. As needed
C. Before meals
D. After meals

19. What is the recommended needle length for IM injection in adults?
A. 1/2 inch
B. 1 inch
C. 1.5 inches
D. 2 inches

20. What is the best method to confirm a nasogastric tube placement?
A. Ask patient to speak
B. Inject air and listen
C. X-ray
D. Measure external length

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